Dear Aebi: "Is the baptism commanded in Acts 2:38 valid for us today? Is it water baptism? One preacher says it was only for first-century Jews, and another says it was Holy Spirit baptism."
The answer to both questions is, "Yes,"
and both preachers are wrong! It is valid for us today because
we have sinned and need forgiveness. We have not committed
exactly the same sins the Jews had to whom Peter spoke on Pentecost,
but that is irrelevant. New Testament baptism in water was always
for the remission of sin, and no specific sin is singled out.
Some of the Jews on Pentecost had asked Pilate to crucify Jesus,
but they also had done other sins not specified. Sin is violation
of God's law (1 John 3:4), and all have sinned (Romans 3:23).
So all need forgiveness need saved and they can be saved only
by the gospel of Christ (Romans 1:16), which includes baptism
in water (Acts 8:12,36; 10:47-48).
Why would anyone conclude that water baptism was
only for the Jews, or only for the Jews on Pentecost in Acts 2,
unless he wants to avoid the statement of Peter in Acts 2:38 that
baptism is for the forgiveness or remission of sins? In order
to teach that salvation is by faith only, some preachers argue
that the Gentiles were saved before they were baptized, then were
baptized in order to join a church. Thus Hiscox's Baptist Manual
says that baptism is a church ordinance rather than a command
of Christ, and that at first (in Acts 2) baptism was the door
into the church or the way to get into Christ, but now it is not
so. The truth is that Jesus did command baptism (Mark 16:16),
which was thus administered in His name (by His authority) in
Acts 2:38, 10:47, and elsewhere.
One preacher wrote that baptism in passages like
Ephesians 4:5, 1 Peter 3:21, and Romans 6:3-4 refers to Holy Spirit
or spiritual baptism and has nothing to do with water. They say
the Holy Spirit is sent on a person to give him faith, which faith
saves him without any further acts of obedience. If that were
true, it would make Christ a respecter of persons, because otherwise
He would give Holy Spirit baptism to everyone and thus save them
all. Calvin and Augustine said He only sends the Spirit to the
elect who have been predestined to be saved, and it didn't concern
them that this made God a respecter of persons or prejudiced toward
some and against others. Peter said God shows no partiality (Acts
10:34).
Acts 2:38 was not Holy Spirit baptism; Peter said
to repent and be baptized to receive the gift of the Spirit. Baptism
in Acts 2:38 comes after faith and repentance, and they gained
faith by hearing Peter's sermon about the resurrection and ascension
of Jesus. Faith comes by hearing God's word, not by any direct
gift of the Spirit (Romans 10:17).
Holy Spirit baptism was promised to the apostles
(Acts 1:5,8) and was received by the apostles (Acts 2:1-4). It
was not for forgiveness of sins water baptism did that. It was
to empower them to speak in foreign languages, thereby proving
that their message was from God. The Spirit's coming on Cornelius
and friends was to show that they, though Gentiles, could be baptized
and be saved. 2660 Layman Rd., Vincent, OH 45784 cjandi@juno.com